25 Part 107 Practice Test Questions With Answers and Explanations

The Part 107 knowledge test is 60 multiple choice questions pulled from a much bigger pool. You get two hours, you need 42 right answers to pass, and the fastest way to find your weak spots is working through questions, not rewatching videos.

Here are 25 questions straight from the bank behind our free Part 107 practice test, grouped by subject area. Each answer comes with the explanation and the regulation behind it, because memorizing letters falls apart the moment the FAA words a question differently.

If these all feel easy, go take the full timed version. If one section feels shaky, that is the section to study tonight.

Regulations

1. Before each flight, the remote PIC must make sure the small unmanned aircraft is

• A. Registered to the person flying it that day
• B. In a condition for safe operation
• C. Inspected by an FAA-certificated repair station

Answer: B – 14 CFR 107.15 requires the remote PIC to ensure the aircraft is in a condition for safe operation before flight. Registration belongs to the owner, and Part 107 has no repair-station inspection requirement. (14 CFR 107.15)

2. A 12-year-old receives a new camera drone. Registration must be completed by

• A. Nobody – toy drones are exempt
• B. A person at least 13 years old on the owner’s behalf
• C. The child’s school or club

Answer: B – Part 48 requires the owner to register, but an owner under 13 must have someone at least 13 years old register the aircraft for them. (14 CFR 48.25)

3. The initial aeronautical knowledge test for a remote pilot certificate is taken

• A. Online through the FAA’s own website at no cost
• B. At an FAA-approved knowledge testing center
• C. By mail with a notarized answer sheet

Answer: B – The initial knowledge test is proctored in person at an FAA-approved knowledge testing center, and the test report goes with your application under 14 CFR 107.63. Only the recurrent training for existing certificate holders is online. (14 CFR 107.63; FAA ACS)

4. After registering a small unmanned aircraft, the registration number must be

• A. Kept legible and affixed so it stays on the aircraft for the duration of each operation
• B. Painted in characters at least 3 inches tall
• C. Filed with local law enforcement before the first flight

Answer: A – 14 CFR 48.205 requires the unique identifier to be maintained in a legible condition and affixed by any means that keeps it on the aircraft for the duration of each operation. There is no minimum character size. (14 CFR 48.205)

Airspace

5. On a sectional chart, a solid blue circle with extensions around an airport marks

• A. Class B airspace
• B. Class C airspace
• C. Class D airspace

Answer: A – Class B is shown with solid blue concentric lines. Class C uses solid magenta, and Class D uses a dashed blue circle. The thick blue rings are the busiest airspace in the system. (Sectional chart legend; AIM 3-2-3)

6. Solid magenta concentric rings around an airport on a sectional chart mark

• A. Class C airspace
• B. Class B airspace
• C. A military operations area

Answer: A – Solid magenta rings are Class C: a towered airport with radar service, smaller than Class B. Blue rings are Class B; dashed blue is Class D. (Sectional chart legend; AIM 3-2-4)

7. The core surface area of a typical Class C airport extends from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport within a radius of about

• A. 3 nautical miles
• B. 5 nautical miles
• C. 10 nautical miles

Answer: B – Class C has two parts: a core surface area of about 5 NM radius from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport, and an outer shelf of about 10 NM radius from 1,200 to 4,000 feet AGL. (AIM 3-2-4)

8. On a sectional chart, an airport symbol printed in blue rather than magenta tells you the airport

• A. Has a hard-surfaced runway over 8,000 feet
• B. Has an operating control tower
• C. Is closed to civilian traffic

Answer: B – Sectional charts print towered airport symbols in blue and non-towered airports in magenta. That one color choice is the fastest way to know whether you will be dealing with ATC or a CTAF. (FAA Aeronautical Chart User’s Guide)

9. Unless the chart or airport procedures say otherwise, the standard traffic pattern at a non-towered airport uses

• A. Left-hand turns
• B. Right-hand turns
• C. No standard; each pilot chooses

Answer: A – The standard traffic pattern uses left turns, with right-turn patterns charted as ‘RP’ next to the runway in the data block. Light-aircraft patterns are typically flown around 1,000 feet AGL, well inside your operating altitudes. (AIM 4-3-3)

Weather

10. In a METAR, a visibility reported as ‘1 1/2SM’ means the prevailing visibility is

• A. 1.5 statute miles
• B. 1.5 nautical miles
• C. 15 statute miles

Answer: A – METAR visibility is reported in statute miles: 1 1/2SM is one and a half statute miles. That is below the 3-statute-mile minimum Part 107 requires. (AC 00-45; 14 CFR 107.51)

11. In a TAF valid period shown as ‘0912/1018’, the forecast covers

• A. From 1200Z on the 9th to 1800Z on the 10th
• B. From 0912Z to 1018Z on the same day
• C. The 9th through the 12th of the month

Answer: A – TAF validity is DDHH/DDHH: day, hour, day, hour in Zulu time. 0912/1018 runs from 1200Z on the 9th to 1800Z on the 10th, a 30-hour forecast. (AC 00-45, TAF format)

12. In a TAF, ‘PROB30’ attached to a thunderstorm group tells you there is a

• A. 30 knot wind expected with the storm
• B. 30 percent chance the conditions occur in the stated period
• C. Storm cell moving at 30 miles per hour

Answer: B – PROB30 marks a 30 percent probability of the listed weather during the stated period. It appears only for events like thunderstorms or precipitation significant enough to matter for planning. (AC 00-45, Aviation Weather Services)

13. Virga – rain streaks hanging from a cloud that never reach the ground – warns a drone operator of

• A. Improving conditions aloft
• B. Evaporative cooling that can drive strong downdrafts and microbursts below the cloud
• C. Rising warm air that will improve climb performance

Answer: B – Virga is precipitation evaporating before it lands. The evaporation chills the air, and that cold, dense air can plunge as a strong downdraft or microburst, dangerous even when no rain reaches your site. (AC 00-6, Aviation Weather)

Loading & Performance

14. Increasing the weight of a small unmanned aircraft will generally

• A. Decrease the power required to hover
• B. Increase power demand and reduce flight time
• C. Have no effect if CG stays centered

Answer: B – More weight means more lift needed, which means more power drawn from the battery per second. Endurance drops even when balance is perfect. (Pilot’s Handbook, weight and performance)

15. A center of gravity loaded forward of the forward limit makes the aircraft

• A. Less stable and prone to pitch-up
• B. More stable but needing more control force to pitch up
• C. Unaffected in hover

Answer: B – Forward CG adds stability but costs control authority: the aircraft resists pitch-up, burns more power holding attitude, and can run out of control range. (Pilot’s Handbook, weight and balance)

16. Adding a heavier payload to a multirotor small UAS will generally

• A. Reduce flight time and make the aircraft slower to respond
• B. Increase flight time by adding momentum
• C. Have no effect until the payload exceeds the aircraft’s empty weight

Answer: A – More weight means the motors work harder for the same flight, draining the battery faster and leaving less power margin for maneuvering and wind. It also raises stall speed and lengthens takeoff for fixed-wing sUAS. (AC 107-2; FAA-H-8083-1)

Operations

17. Before flying at a new site, the remote PIC must assess all of the following EXCEPT

• A. Local terrain and obstacles
• B. The mood of nearby property owners
• C. The operating environment and hazards to persons and property

Answer: B – 107.49 requires assessing the operating environment: terrain, obstacles, weather, airspace, and hazards to people and property. Courtesy matters, but it is not the regulatory preflight item. (14 CFR 107.49)

18. Before flight, the remote PIC briefs the visual observer and the client contact on site. Part 107 requires that briefing to cover

• A. Only the planned altitude and landing zone
• B. Operating conditions, emergency and contingency procedures, roles and responsibilities, and potential hazards
• C. Just the battery level and flight time

Answer: B – 14 CFR 107.49(b) requires the remote PIC to ensure everyone directly participating knows the operating conditions, emergency procedures, contingency procedures, roles and responsibilities, and potential hazards before the flight. (14 CFR 107.49)

19. A spotter offers binoculars so you can keep the aircraft ‘in sight’ farther out. Under Part 107 this

• A. Is allowed if the spotter is a certificated visual observer
• B. Cannot be used to satisfy visual line of sight; VLOS is an unaided-vision standard
• C. Is allowed only in Class G airspace

Answer: B – VLOS under 14 CFR 107.31 is judged with unaided vision (corrective lenses excepted). Binoculars can momentarily help you locate the aircraft, but if you need them to keep seeing it, you are beyond visual line of sight. (14 CFR 107.31; AC 107-2)

20. A sound battery practice for commercial sUAS work is to

• A. Fly until the low-battery warning, then start home
• B. Plan to land with a reserve, monitoring voltage rather than trusting the percentage display alone
• C. Top off the battery between flights regardless of temperature

Answer: B – Battery percentage estimates drift, and cold or aged packs sag early. Plan the job to land with a real reserve, watch actual voltage, and never charge a hot pack. AC 107-2 treats battery management as a core preflight and in-flight duty. (AC 107-2)

Risk & ADM

21. The antidote for anti-authority is

• A. Follow the rules – they are usually right
• B. I am not helpless
• C. It could happen to me

Answer: A – Anti-authority resents being told what to do. The FAA’s antidote thought: ‘Follow the rules. They are usually right.’ (AIM 8-1-5)

22. A client offers double pay to fly in marginal weather. The safest framing of this pressure is

• A. A business opportunity to weigh against the fee
• B. An external pressure that must not enter the safety decision
• C. Proof the flight is legal

Answer: B – Money, schedules, and client wishes are external pressures in the PAVE sense. They change what you want, never what is safe, and the go/no-go call belongs to the PIC alone. (Pilot’s Handbook, chap 2 (PAVE))

23. In the DECIDE model, the process starts when you

• A. Detect that a change has occurred
• B. Identify all possible actions
• C. Evaluate the outcome of your action

Answer: A – DECIDE runs Detect, Estimate, Choose, Identify, Do, Evaluate. Nothing happens until you notice the change itself, which is why disciplined scanning and monitoring are what feed good decisions. (PHAK Chapter 2)

24. The difference between a hazard and a risk is that a hazard is

• A. A present condition or event, while risk is the probability and severity of the loss it could cause
• B. Only dangerous at night, while risk applies at all times
• C. The same thing measured two ways

Answer: A – Power lines near the landing zone are a hazard. The risk is how likely you are to hit them and how bad it would be. You manage risk; you cannot delete the wires. (PHAK Chapter 2)

25. On medication, the CFRs prohibit acting as a crewmember while using

• A. Any medication sold over the counter
• B. Any medication that affects your faculties in any way contrary to safety
• C. Only sedatives and tranquilizers

Answer: B – The rule covers anything that degrades the faculties safety needs, including common antihistamines and motion-sickness drugs. The AIM’s safest rule: do not fly while taking any medication unless the FAA has approved it. (AIM 8-1-1)

Want the full run?

The free practice test draws 60 questions from this same 122-question bank, weighted the way the real exam weights them, with a two-hour timer. When you finish it sorts your misses by subject area so you know exactly what to review. No signup, no email gate, retake it as many times as you want.

And if you would rather have the whole thing taught to you in order, the self-paced Part 107 course covers every topic on the FAA’s airman certification standards.